1) LAN stands for which of the following?(1)

    A. Local Arena Network

    B. Local Area Network

    C. Local Area News

    D. Logical Area Network

2) WAN stands for which of the following?(1)

    A. Wide Arena Network

    B. Wide Area News

    C. Wide Area Network

    D. World Area Network

3) The two sublayers of the IEEE Data Link Layer are which of the following?(1)

    A. Data Link and MAC

    B. Data Link and LLC

    C. Logical Link Control and Media Access Control

    D. Link and Logical Control

4) Repeaters work at which layer of the OSI model?

    A. Physical

    B. Session

    C. Network

    D. Transport

5) Bridges work at what layer of the OSI model?

    A. Physical

    B. Network

    C. Data Link

    D. Application

6) What is the Network Layer of the OSI responsible for?(1)

    A. Regenerating the digital signal

    B. Bridging

    C. Routing packets through an internetwork

    D. Gateway services

7) Which of the following are Presentation Layer standards? (choose 3)

    A. MPEG and MIDI

    B. ASCII and EBCDIC

    C. JPEG and PICT

    D. NFS and SQL

8) Which of the following are Session Layer standards? (1)

    A. MPEG and MIDI

    B. ASCII and EBCDIC

    C. JPEG and PICT

    D. NFS and SQL

9) Which three of the following are true statements about connection-oriented sessions?

    A. Any segments not acknowledged are dropped

    B. The segments delivered are acknowledged back to the sender upon their reception

    C. A manageable data flow is maintained in order to avoid congestion, overloading and loss of any data

    D. Segments are sequenced back into their proper order upon arrival at their destination

10) CPE is an acronym for which of the following?(1)

    A. Central Processing Engineering

    B. Customer Premise Equipment

    C. Central Processing Equipment

    D. Customer Process Equipment

11) CSU/DSU is an acronym for which of the following?(1)

    A. Channel Service Unit / Digital Service Unit

    B. Channel Service Unit / DUI Service Unit

    C. Channel Service Unit / Data Service Unit

    D. Channel Service Unit / Digital Switch Unit

12) CO is an acronym for which of the following?(1)

    A. Central Office

    B. Capital Office

    C. Central Operator

    D. Company Office

13) Choose three reasons why the networking industry uses a layered model.

    A. It allows changes to occur in all layers when changing one protocol

    B. It allows changes in one layer to occur without changing other layers

    C. It clarifies what general function is to be done rather than how to do it

    D. It clarifies how to do it rather than what general function to be done

    E. It facilitates systematic troubleshooting

14) Which layer is responsible for putting 1s and 0s into a logical group?

    A. Data Link

    B. Physical

    C. Network

    D. Transport

    E. Application

    F. Session

15) Which layer defines the physical topology?

    A. Session

    B. Network

    C. Physical

    D. Application

    E. Data Link

    F. Transport

16) Which layer defines bit synchronization?

    A. Application

    B. Session

    C. Transport

    D. Session

    E. Physical

    F. Network

17) Which layer is responsible for determining is sufficient resources for the intended communication exists?

    A. Application

    B. Presentation

    C. Session

    D. Transport

    E. Network

18) Which layer is responsible for routing through an internetwork?

    A. Physical

    B. Session

    C. Transport

    D. Application

    E. Network

    F. Data Link

19) Which layer hides details of network dependent information from the higher layers by providing transparent data transfer?

    A. Application

    B. Transport

    C. Network

    D. Data Link

    E. Physical

    F. Session

20) Which layer is responsible for coordinating communication between systems?

    A. Application

    B. Session

    C. Physical

    D. Data Link

    E. Network

    F. Presentation

21) Which layer is responsible for providing mechanisms for multiplexing upper-layer application, session establishment, and tear down of virtual circuits?

    A. Network

    B. Physical

    C. Application

    D. Session

    E. Transport

    F. Presentation

22) Which layer is responsible for flow control, acknowledgement, and windowing?

    A. Network

    B. Session

    C. Transport

    D. Physical

    E. Application

    F. Data Link

23) Which layer is responsible for negotiating data transfer syntax?

    A. Application

    B. Presentation

    C. Session

    D. Transport

    E. Network

24) Which layer is responsible for synchronizing sending and receiving applications?

    A. Application

    B. Presentation

    C. Session

    D. Transport

    E. Network

25) Which layer is responsible for identifying and establishing the availability of the intended communication partner?

    A. Presentation

    B. Application

    C. Session

    D. Network

    E. Physical

    F. Transport

26) Which layer is responsible for framing?

    A. Network

    B. Data Link

    C. Application

    D. Session

    E. Transport

    F. Physical

27) The CSMA/CD Ethernet IEEE committee is defines as which of the following?(1)

    A. 802.2

    B. 802.3

    C. 802.4

    D. 802.5

28) The maximum distance of a 10Base5 network is which of the following?

    A. 100 meters

    B. 500 meters

    C. 1000 meters

    D. 1500 meters

29) Which of the following is a characteristic of a switch, but not of a repeater?(1)

    A. Switches forward packets based on the IPX or IP address in the frame

    B. Switches forward packets based only on the IP address in the packet

    C. Switches forward packets based on the MAC address in the frame

    D. Switches forward packets based on the IP address in the frame

30) CSMA/CD stand for which of the following?

    A. Collision Sense, Multiple Access with Carrier Detection

    B. Collision Sense, Multiple Access with Collision Detection

    C. Carrier Sense, Multiple Access with Collision Detection    

    D. Carrier Sense, MAC address with Collision Detection

31) How does the cut-through switching technique work?(1)

    A. The LAN switch copies the entire frame into its onboard buffers and then looks up the destination     address in its forwarding, or switching, table and determines the outgoing interface

    C. By using broadcast address as source addresses

    D. By using a Class I repeater in a collision domain

32) How does a switch use store and forward?(1)

    A. The switch waits only for the header to be received before it checks the destination address and starts forwarding the packets

    C. By using a Class I repeater in a collision domain

    D. By using broadcast addresses as source addresses

33) What is required to support full-duplex Ethernet? (choose 2)

    A. Full-duplex NIC cards

    B. Multiple paths between multiple stations on a link

    C. Loopback and collision detection disabled

    D. Automatic sensing operation by all connected stations

34) Which two does 100BaseT use?

    A. Switching with 53-byte cells

    B. IEE 802.5

    C. CSMA/CD

35) Choose the following that are benefits to segmenting with router.(choose all that apply)

    A. Manageability

36) The benefits to segmenting with Bridges are which of the following?(choose all that apply)

    A. Manageability

    D. Datagram filtering

37) Which two describe frame tagging?

    A. Examines particular info about each frame

    B. A user- assigned ID defined to each frame

    C. The building of filter tables

    D. A unique ID placed in the header of each frame as it traverses the switch fabric

38) Which of the following describe full-duplex transmission?(1)

    B. Uses a single wire

    C. Data transmission in only both directions, but only one way at a time

    D. Data transmission in only one direction

39) If a frame is received at a switch and only the destination hardware address is read before the frame is forwarded, what type of switching method is this?(1)

    A. Cut-through

    B. Store-and-forward

    C. Store-and-drop

    D. Latency

40) Which of the following switching types is default for the Cisco 5000 series?(1)

    A. Latency

    B. Cut-through

    C. Store-and-forward

    D. Store-and-splice

41) Which is true regarding store-and-forward switching method?(1)

    A. It is default for all Cisco switches

    B. It only reads the destination hardware address before forwarding the frame

    C. Latency varies depending on frame-length

    D. Latency is constant

42) What does the Spanning Tree Algorithm (STA) do?(1)

    A. STA is implemented by STP to prevent loops

    B. Restore lost frames

    C. Forward packets through a switch

    D. Builds routing tables for routing through an internetwork

43) What is the IEEE specification for Spanning Tree Protocol?(1)

    A. 803

    B. 803.ud

    C. 802.1d

    D. 802.9

44) Which can be true regarding VLANs? (choose all that apply)

    A. They are created by location

45) Of the following switching types, which one has the highest latency?(1)

    A. Cut-through

    B. Store-and-forward

    C. Fragment Free

    D. None

46) Of the following switching types, which one has the lowest latency?(1)

    A. Cut-through

    B. Fragment Free

    C. Store-and-forward

    D. None

47) What is the port number for TCP?(1)

    A. 6

    B. 11

    C. 21

    D. 80

48) What is the port number for UDP?(1)

    A. 6

    B. 21

    C. 17

    D. 25

49) Which protocol works at the Internet layer and is responsible for making routing decisions?(1)

    A. UDP

    B. TCP

    C. ARP

    D. IP

50) UDP works at which layer of the DOD model?

    A. Transport

    B. Internet

    C. Host-to-Host

    D. Data Link

51) Which port numbers are used by TCP and UDP to set up sessions with other hosts?(1)

    A. 1-25

    B. 6-17

    C. 1023 and above

    D. 6 and 17 respectively

52) Which protocol will send a message to routers if a network outage or congestion occurs?

    A. ARP

    B. IP

    C. ICMP

    D. TCP

53) What is the difference between TCP and UDP?(1)

    A. TCP is connection-oriented; UDP uses acknowledgements only

    B. TCP is connection-oriented; UDP is connectionless

    C. Both TCP and UDP are connection-oriented, but only TCP uses windowing

    D. TCP and UDP both have sequencing, but UDP is connectionless

54) Which of the following is used to manage and monitor the network?(1)

    A. FTP

    B. HTTP

    C. IP

    D. SNMP

55) Which frame has a Type field to identify the upper-layer protocol?(1)

    A. 802.2

    B. 802.5

    C. 802.3

    D. Ethernet_II

56) What does the acronym ARP stand for?(1)

    A. ARP Resolution Protocol

    B. Address Resolution Protocol

    C. Address Resolution Phase

    D. Address Resolution Protocol

57) Ping uses which Internet layer protocol?(1)

    A. ARP

    B. RARP

    C. ICMP

    D. FTP

58) Which of the following protocols are used to get an IP address from a known MAC address?(1)

    A. ARP

    B. ICMP

    C. BootP

    D. RARP

    E. IP

59) Which of the following protocols are used for logical network addressing?(1)

    A. ARP

    B. ICMP

    C. BootP

    D. IP

    F. RARP

60) Which protocol gets a hardware address from a known IP address?(1)

    A. ARP

    B. RARP

    C. ICMP

    D. BootP

    E. IP

    F. TCP

61) Which two of the following protocols are used at the Transport layer?

    A. ARP

    B. RARP

    C. ICMP

    D. BootP

    E. TCP

    F. UDP

62) Which of the following is a connectionless protocol at the Transport layer?(1)

    A. ARP

    B. RARP

    C. ICMP

    D. FTP

    E. UDP

    F. IP

63) Which protocol will let neighbor routers know if your internetwork experienced congestion on a serial port?(1)

    A. ARP

    B. FTP

    C. ICMP

    D. IP

    E. BootP

    F. RARP

64) Which protocol is used for booting diskless workstaions?(1)

    A. RARP

    B. ARP

    C. IP

    D. UDP

    E. ICMP

65) What is the correct netmask (in decimal dot notation) for the address 209.76.25.1/26?

    A. 255.255.255.192

    B. 255.255.255.224

    C. 255.255.255.254

    D. 255.255.255.0

66) What which of the following is an invalid host address using a netmask of 255.255.255.192

    A. 10.1.1.1

    B. 10.1.1.66

    C. 10.1.1.127

    D. 10.1.1.130

67) Your network ID is 172.16.0.0 and you need multiple subnets. You need 600 hosts IDs for each subnet. What subnet mask would you assign that will allow for growth?(1)

    A. 255.255.224.0

    B. 255.255.240.0

    C. 255.255.248.0

    D. 255.255.252.0

68) You have a network ID of 172.16.0.0 with 8 subnets. You need to allow for the largest possible number of host IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you use?(1)

    A.255.255.224.0

    B 255.255.240.0

    C. 255.255.248.0

    D. 255.255.252.0

69) How many hosts and how many subnets would you have with an address of 172.16.13.0/11?(1)

    A. 8190 Subnets 6 Hosts

    B. 510 Subnets 126 Hosts

    C. 2046 Subnet 30Hosts

    D. 254 Subnets 254 Hosts

70) You have a Class B network address divided into 30 subnets. You will add 25 new subnets within the next year. You need 600 host IDs for each subnet. Which subnet mask should you use? (1)

    A. 255.192.0.0

    B. 255.254.0.0

    C. 255.255.248 0

    D. 255.255.252.0

71) Your company has a Class C network address of 192.168.70.0 and you need the largest possible number of subnets, with up to 12 hosts per subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign? (1)

    A.255.255.255.192

    B. 255.255.255.224

    C. 255.255.255.240

    D. 255.255.255.248

72) You need to come up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. How many network IDs must you allow for when you define the subnet mask for the network?(2)

    A. One for each subnet

    B. One for each host ID

    C. One for each router interface

    D. One for each WAN interface

    E. One for each NIC installed in each client

73) You need to come up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. Which two factors must you consider when you define the subnet mask for the network?

    A. The number of subnets on the network

    B. The number of host IDs on each subnet

    C. The volume of traffic on each subnet

    D. The location of DHCP servers

    E. The location of the default gateway

74) You need to come up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. How many host IDs must you allow for when you define a subnet mask for the network?(2)

    A. One for each subnet

    B. One for each router interface

    C. One for each WAN connection

    D. One for each network adapter installed on each host

75) You have an IP address of 172.16.3.57 with an 11-bit subnet mask. What are the valid hosts?(1)

    A. 172.16.3.32 to 172.16.3.62

    B. 172.16.3.33 to 172.16.3.62

    C. 172.16.3.34 to 172.16.3.62

    D. 172.16.3.57 to 172.16.3.62

76) You have a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248. How many subnets and hosts do you have?(1)

    A. 2,097,150 subnet and 8 hosts

    B. 8,190 subnets and 6 hosts

    C. 30 subnets and 14 hosts

    D. 6 subnets and 30 hosts

77) You have a Class C network with a 6-bit subnet mask, how many subnets and hosts do you have?(1)

    A. 254 subnets, 30 hosts

    B. 64 subnets, 8 hosts

    C. 62 subnets, 2 hosts

    D. 30 subnets, 2 hosts

78) How many classes of addresses are available for use on the internet?(1)

    A. 1

    B. 2

    C. 3

    D. 4

79) What is the correct broadcast address for the host 172.16.64.128 using a netmask of 255.255.192.0?(1)

    A. 172.16.128.255

    B. 172.16.127.255

    C. 172.16.64.0

    D. 172.16.0.128

80) What is the command to change the name of a Cisco router?

    A. host name <newhostname>

    C. routername <newhostname>

    D. <newhostname> host name

81) What is the syntax to add a banner to the Cisco router?

    A. banner #

    B. banner

    C. motd banner #

    D. banner motd #

82) What is the command to copy the configuration from NVRAM to RAM?

    A. copy flash start

    B. copy running-config startup-config

    C. copy startup-config running-config

    D. wr mem

83) What key do you use to view the last command?

    A. Left Arrow

    B. Right Arrow

    C. Space bar

    D. Up Arrow

84) What key do you use to view the last command?

    A. Ctrl+E

    B. Ctrl+Z

    C. Ctrl+P

    D. Ctrl+X

85) What edit key do you use to move the cursor to the beginning of the line?

    A. Ctrl+E

    B. Ctrl+A

    C. Ctrl+P

    D. Ctrl+D

86) What key do you press to have the IOS complete the command for you?

    A. Tab

    B. Space bar

    C. Shift

    D. Ctrl+ESC

87) What is the command to exit from privileged mode (#) back to the user prompt (>)?(1)

    A. Quit

    B. Exit

    C. Disable

    D. enable

88) You have two Cisco routers setup back-to-back in a lab using DTE/DCE cables. To which router would you add the clockrate command?(1)

    A. The Ethernet port on the DTE router

    B. The serial port on the DCE router

    C. The serial port on the DTE router

    D. The Ethernet port on the DCE router

89) What is the command to change the clock rate of your DCE interface to 56K?(1)

    A. clock rate 56

    B. clockrate 56

    C. clock rate 56000

    D. clockrate 56000

90) What does the command erase startup-config do?(1)

    A. Erases the contents of RAM

    B. Erases Flash

    C. Erases TFTP server

    D. Erases the contents of NVRAM

91) What command do you type to change the enable password to Cisco?(1)

    A. Config t, enable secret Cisco

    B. Config t, line con 0, login, password Cisco

    C. Config t, enable password Cisco

    D. config t, line vty 0 4, login, password Cisco

92) The terminal no editing command will perform what function?(1)

    A. Edit the contents of NVRAM

    B. Enable password functions

    C. Allows access to the terminal port

    D. Stops the advanced editing feature

93) On Cisco catalyst 5000 how would you set the second port on the controller in the first slot to full duplex?

    A. Set port duplex 0/1 full

    B. Set port duplex 1/1 full

    C. Set port duplex 0/2 full

    D. Set port duplex 1/2 full

94) What is the syntax to use to configure the port on a Catalyst 5000 switch?(1)

    A. slot port/type

    B. port type/slot

    C. type slot/port

    D. port slot/type

95) What is the syntax to use to configure a VIP card on a Cisco 7000 series router?(1)

    A. slot card/port

    B. type slot/port adapter/port

    C. slot port/adapter

    D. port type/slot port/adapter

96) Which is true regarding half duplex Ethernet operation?

    A. Half Duplex transmission between stations is achieved using Point to Point Ethernet & Fast Ethernet

    C. Half duplex transmission between stations is achieved by using point to multipoint Ethernet and Fast Ethernet

    D. Half Duplex ethernet technology provides a transmit circuit connection wired directly to the receiver circuit at the other end

97) What are the 2 functions of the Data Link Mac layer?

    A. Handles access to shared media

    B. Provides SAPs for higher level protocols

98) What is the command to change your Telnet password to Cisco?(1)

    A. conf t, line con 0, login, password Cisco

    B. conf t, enable password Cisco

    C. conf t, line vty 0 4, login, password Cisco

    D. conf t, line vty 0 4, login, telnet Cisco

99) What is the command to change your Enable Secret password to Cisco?(1)

    A. enable secret Cisco

    B. enable Cisco

    C. line con 0, login, password Cisco

    D. enable Cisco secret

100) When you are attached via a console port, how do you log into the router?(1)

    A. username, password

    B. login, username/password

    C. Press enter, type password if prompted

    D. login/password

101) How do you disable advanced editing?(1)

    A. no terminal editing

    B. disable editing

    C. terminal no editing

    D. terminal editing

102) How do you enable advanced editing?(1)

    A. enable editing

    B. editing on

    C. start editing

    D. terminal editing

103) What do you use the Aux port for?(1)

    A. Console

    B. Backup logging

    C. Modem

    D. Terminal editing

104) What is the command to manually enter a static route?(1)

    A. IP route <default gateway> <subnet mask> network

    B. IP route < destination network> <subnet mask> <default gateway>

    C. IP route <destination network> <default gateway>

    D. IP route <destination network> <subnet mask> <source network>

105) What is the IOS command to display the contents of the routing table?(1)

    A. sh ARP

    B. sh ip table

    C. sh ip route

    D. sh run

106) What is the proper syntax to set a gateway of last resort?(1)

    A. ip route 255.255.255.255 <default gateway>

    B. ip route 255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255 <default gateway>

    C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 <default gateway>

    D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 <default gateway>

107) What command do you use when configuring your router for a gateway of last resort?(1)

    A. ip default

    B. ip static route

    C. ip classless

    D. ip classful

108) What are the 3 ways routers learn paths to destination networks?

    A. Static

    D. Routing tables

109) Why would you use static routing instead of dynamic routing?(1)

    A. All the time

    B. When you want automatic updates of the routing tables

    C. When you have very few routes and want to conserve bandwidth

    D. When you have a gateway of last resort

110) What is an administrative distance of 0 mean?(1)

    A. 0 is for Eigrp

    B. 0 is the default distance for directly connected networks

    C. 0 means unreachable

    D. 0 means zero

111) What is the administrative distance for RIP?(1)

    A. 90

    B. 100

    C. 110

    D. 120

112) What is the administrative distance for IGRP?(1)

    A. 90

    B. 100

    C. 110

    D. 120

113) What does the "S" mean when looking at the routing table?(1)

    A. Dynamically attached

    B. Statically connected

    C. Directly connected

    D. Shutdown route

114) When looking at a router table, what does "C" mean?(1)

    A. Connected

    B. Directly connected

    C. Closed route

    D. Route changed

115) When discussing static routes, what is the gateway parameter used for?(1)

    A. Determining the next hop

    B. Defining the Administrative Distance

    C. Defining the subnet

    D. Determining the dynamic route

116) What does a router do with a packet that it does not have a destination network for?(1)

    A. Forwards the packet to the next hop

    B. Sends it to the Serial port

    C. Drops the packet

    D. Sends it back out the same interface it received it in

117) What is true when creating static route?(choose all that apply)

    A. The gateway parameter is required

    B. The mask parameter is optional

    C. The administrative distance is required

    D. The administrative distance is optional

118) What paramater is used with statically assigned routers to tell packets which interface to use to     reach a distant network?(1)

    A. Mask

    B. Default gateway

    C. Interface

    D. Subnet

119) What is the routing algorithm used by RIP and IGRP?(1)

    A. OSPF

    B. Distance Vector

    C. Link-state

    D. Dynamic

120) What is the command to view the broadcast frequency of IGRP updates?(1)

    A. debug ip igrp

    B. sh ip route

    C. sh ip protocol

    D. debug ip route

121) What is the routing metric used by RIP?(1)

    A. Route poisoning

    B. Split horizon

    C. TTL

    D. Hop count

122) What is the routing metric used by IGRP?(1)

    A. Hop count

    B. TTL

    C. MTU, delay, bandwidth, reliability, and load

    D. Count to infinity

123) What utility can you use to see the path a packet takes through an internetwork?(1)

    A. Ping

    B. SNMP

    C. Trace

    D. Route

124) What utility can you use to test a network connection of a remote host?(1)

    A. Ping

    B. Trace

    C. Route

    D. FTP

125) What does a metric of 16 hops represent when using RIP?(1)

    A. Number of routers

    B. Number of hops to the destination

    C. Bandwidth

    D. Destination unreachable

126) What is the purpose of Split Horizons?(1)

    A. It prevents the regular update messages from reinstating a route that has gone down

    B. Tells the router the destination is unreachable

    C. Information received on an interface cannot be sent back out the same interface

    D. Informs all neighbor routers that two routes exist

127) What are hold-downs used for?(1)

    B. Information received on an interface cannot be sent back out the same interface

    C. To prevent regular update messages from reinstating a route that has come back up

    D. To hold the routing table from being sent to another router

128) Define Poison Reverse?(1)

    A. To prevent regular update messages from reinstating a route that has gone down

    B. Information received on an interface cannot be sent back out the same interface

    D. Packets sent out that are not destined for a network go to the default network

129) Identify the 3 kinds of router IGRP advertises?

    A. Interior

    C. Dynamic

    D. System

130) Which of the following are Distant Vector protocols?(choose all that apply)

    A. RIP

    B. EIGRP

    C. OSPF

    D. IGRP

131) What is the maximum metric limit for Link-State protocols?(1)

    A. 15

    B. 16

    C. 256

    D. 65,533

132) What is convergence time?(1)

    A. The time it takes for a packet to reach its destination

    B. The time is takes for all routers update their tables after a change takes place

    C. The update time

    D. The time it takes to reload a router

133) What commands are used for displaying RIP network information?(choose all that apply)

    A. sh ip protocol

    B. sh route

    C. sh ip route

    D. debug ip rip

134) How often does RIP send out routing table updates by default?(1)

    A. They send complete updates every 60 seconds

    B. They send partial updates every 60 seconds

    C. They send complete updates every 30 seconds

    D. They send partial updates every 30 seconds

135) What is true about Link-State protocols?(1)

    A. They maintain a more complex table than distant vector protocols

    B. They maintain a less complex table than distant vector protocols

    C. They use routing ports

    D. The maintain backup copies of the IOS

136) What is the default CDP broadcast update rate for Cisco routers?(1)

    A. 30 seconds

    B. 60 seconds

    C. 90 seconds

    D. 120 seconds

137) What's the default DCP holdtime in seconds for Cisco routers?(1)

    A. 30 seconds

    B. 60 seconds

    C. 90 seconds

    D. 180 seconds

138) What does the command "CDP Timer 150" do?

    A.Gives CDP a administrative metric of 150

    B. Configures the rate at which CDP packets are sent

    C. Changes the CDP hold down timer

    D. Sets the CDP hold down timer to 150

139) What is the purpose and default value of the CDP timer command

    B. 90 seconds; interval between updates

    C. 60 seconds; interval before an entry expires

    D. 90 seconds; interval before an entry expires

140) What command will allow you to load a Cisco router configuration file that is stored on a TFTP server?(1)

    A. config mem, IP address of TFTP server

    B. copy running-config startup-config

    C. config net, IP address of TFTP server

    D. config t, IP address of TFTP server

141) Type the command to instruct the router to load the IOS from Read Only Memory?

    A. Load system rom

    C. run rom

    D. boot system default

142) What is the command to instruct the router to load the IOS from the file named "ios11.2.img" saved on flash?

    A. Load boot flash ios.11.2.img

    C. load flash ios11.2.img

    D. run flash ios.11.2.img

143) What command shows the CDP hold time, hardware, port ID, and local interface?(1)

    A. sh cdp entry *

    B. sh cdp int

    C. sh cdp info

    D. sh cdp neighbor

144) Which command will load the Cisco router configuration into RAM?(choose three)

    A. reload

    D. copy run start

145) What are 3 ways to provide login access to router?

    A. TFTP

    D. Rlogin

    F RADIUS

146) What are 3 ways to configure the running configuration?

    A. TFTP server

    D. RAM

147) How do you view the host names configured in your router?(choose 2)

    A. sh hosts

    B. sh hostnames

    C. sh host

    D. hostnames

148) What does copy tftp flash do?(1)

    A. copied a file from your TFTP server to your routers flash

    B. copied a configuration from your TFTP server to your RAM

    C. erased your routers NVRAM

    D. erased your routers configuration

149) What is the command to allow you to type Tokyo instead of the IP address 172.16.30.1 to access a router named Tokyo?(1)

    A. config t, hostname Tokyo 172.16.30.1

    B. config t, ip hostname 172.16.30.1 Tokyo

    C. config t, ip hostname Tokyo 172.16.30.1

    D. config t, ip host Tokyo 172.16.30.1

150) What does "P" mean when running a Trace?(1)

    A. Destination unreachable

    B. Source Quench

    C. Protocol unreachable

    D. Good route

151) What is the command to view all of the routers CDP information received?(1)

    A. sh cdp entry

    B. sh cdp neighbor details

    C. sh cdp entry *

    D. sh cdp neigh

152) What type of frame does CDP use to gather information about its neighbors?(1)

    A. Ethernet_II

    B. TCP/IP

    C. Subnetwork Access Protocol (SNAP)

    D. Novell-ether

153) What is the command to load a new IOS image into your router from TFTP?(1)

    A. copy tftp start

    B. copy flash tftp

    C. copy tftp run

    D. copy tftp flash

154) What command should you use to configure the router configuration in NVRAM?(1)

    A. config run

    B. wr mem

    C. config mem

    D. copy tftp run

155) What command can you type to view the connections after telneting into multiple routers     simultaneously?(1)

    A. sh users

    B. sh sessions

    C. sh ports

    D. sh host

156) How can you keep multiple telnet sessions open when logged into several routers?(1)

    A. CTRL+ALT+DEL

    B. CTRL+SHIFT+^

    C. CTRL+ALT+^

    D. Enter

157) What command do you use to have your router do Domain lookups?(1)

    A. IP DNS-Server 10.10.10.20

    B. IP name-server 10.10.10.20

    C. DNS-Server 10.10.10.20

    D. name-server 10.10.10.20

158) What command do you use to disable domain lookup?(1)

    A. domain no-lookup

    B. no domain-lookup

    C. no ip domain-lookup

    D. lookup no-domain

159) What protocols can you use while testing Trace?(choose all that apply)

    A. AppleTalk

    B. DECnet

    C. CLNS

160) What is the command to load the IOS image 11.2-3.img from TFTP server 172.16.10.1 upon boot?(1)

    A. copy tftp run

    B. boot system tftp 11.2-3.img 172.16.10.1

    C. boot tftp 172.16.10.1 11.2-3.img

    D. boot system 11.2-3.img tftp 172.16.10.1

161) Which 3 commands will display the IPX address on int e0? (choose all that apply)

    A.Sh ipx e0

    B. Sh ipx int

    C. Disp ipx int

    D. Sh int e0

    E. Sh ipx int e

    F. Sh ipx int ethernet0

    G. Sh ipx address

    H. Sh ipx address ethernet

    I. Sh int e0 ipx addr

    J. Disp ipx address int e0

161) What command would you type to show if you are receiving broadcasts from IPX servers?(1)

    A. sh ipx route

    B. sh ipx int

    C. sh ipx servers

    D. sh ipx traffic

162) Which command would you type to show SAP and RIP updates you are receiving on an interface?(1)

    A. sh ipx servers

    B. sh ipx interface

    C. sh ipx traffic

    D. sh ipx route

163) Which two of the following are valid ways to have multiple encapsulation types on a single interface?

    A. secondary networks

    C. additional physical interfaces

    D. This is not possible

164) What is the default encapsulation of Netware 3.12?(1)

    A. 802.3

    B. 802.2

    C. 802.5

    D. Ethernet_II

165) Given the IPX address 4a.0002.1111.a999, what is the network ID and what is the node ID?(1)

    A. net 0002.1111.a999 node 4a

    B. net 4a host 0002.1111.a999

    C. net 0002.1111 node a999

    D. net a999 node 0002.1111

166) How can you configure a subinterface on your Ethernet port?(1)

    A. config t, int e0.2400    

    B. config t, int e100.0

    C. config t, 2400 e0

    D. config t, 2400 e100

167) What is the default interval for SAP updates?(1)

    A. 15 seconds

    B. 30 seconds

    C. 60 seconds

    D. 120 seconds

168) Which of the following can reply to a Novell Get Nearest Server (GNS) request?(choose all that apply)

    A. Cisco router

    C. Novell client

    D. Remote Novell server

169) Which of the following provide connection-oriented transport to upper layer protocols?(1)

    A. NCP

    B. SPX

    C. NLSP

    D. RIP

170) Which is the correct syntax for configuring a subinterface on your router?(1)

    A. config t, int e0, ipx network 10, encap sap

    B. config t, int e0.100, ipx network 10, encap arpa

    C. config t, int e0.10, ipx network 10 encap arpa sec

    D. config t, int e0, sub 10, ipx 10

171) If you are running Token Ring with Novell IPX routing, which encapsulation should you use?(1)

    A. 802.5

    B. SNAP

    C. SAP

    D. 802.2

172) What is the default encapsulation and frame type on an Ethernet interface when enabling Novell?(1)

    A. SNAP

    B. SAP

    C. 802.2

    D. Token_SNAP

    E. 802.3

    F. Ethernet_II

173) Which of the following are valid Cisco encapsulation type names?(choose all that apply)

    A. arpa = IPX Ethernet

174) What command do you use to forward IPX packets over multiple paths?(1)

    A. ipx multiple-paths

    B. ipx maximum-paths

    D. ipx paths 2

175) You want to refer to host 172.16.50.1 in an IP access-list, what mask would you use to make the list specific as possible?(1)

    A. 0.0.255.255

    B. 255.255.0.0

    C. 0.0.0.0

    D. 255.255.255.255

176) What command do you add to your extended IPX access list to capture IPX access list hits?(1)

    A. capture list

    B. logging

    C. log enable

    D. log

177) Which access list configuration allows only traffic from network 172.17.0.0 to enter int s0?(1)

    A. Access-list 10 permit 172.17.0.0 0.0.255.255, int s0, ip access-group 10 out

    B. Access-list 10 permit 172.17.0.0 0.0.255.255, int s0, ip access-group 10 in

    C. Access-group 10 permit 172.17.0.0 0.0.255.255, int s0, ip access-list 10 out

    D. Access-list 10 permit 172.17.0.0 0.0.255.255, int s0, ip access-list 10 in

178) Which of the following can be used to monitor IPX access lists? (choose all that apply)

    A. sh int

    B. sh access-lists

179) What are three ways to monitor IP access lists?

    A. sh access-lists

    D. sh int

180) What does -1 mean in an extended IPX access-list?(1)

    A. Any host or any network

    B. Deny all

    C. Deny host

    D. Any IP address

181) What is the extended IPX access list range?(1)

    A. 100-199

    B. 900-999

    C. 1000-1000

    D. 901-1000

182) Which of the following is a valid extended IP access-list?(1)

    A. router# access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.0 any eq 21 log

    B. router(config)# access-list 101 permit tcp host 172.16.30.0 any eq 21 log

    C. router(config)# access-list 101 permit ip host 172.16.30.0 any eq 21 log

    D. router(config)# acess-list 101 permit any any 172.16.30.0

181) What is the IP extended access list range?(1)

    A. 1-99

    B. 101-200

    C. 100-199

    D. 1000-1099

182) Which of the following will show an extended access list 150?

    A. sh ip int

    B. sh ip access-list

    D. sh access-list 150 extended

183) Which of the following will apply IPX sap access list 1010 for incoming traffic, assume you are at the interface configuration?(1)

    A. ipx access-group 1010 in

    B. ipx input-sap-filter 1010

    C. ipx access-list 1010 in

    D. ipx input-sap-filter 1010 in

184) Which can be logged by IPX extended access lists? (choose all that apply)

    A. source address

    F. protocol

185) Which of the following is a valid IPX standard access list?(1)

    A. access-list 900 permit -1 50

    B. access-list 800 permit 30 50 eq SAP

    C. access-list permit all 30 50

    D. acess-list 900 permit 30 50

    E. access-list 800 permit 30 50

186) Which of the following are logged when IP access list logging is enabled? (choose all that apply)

    A. source address

187) Which of the following will show which ports have IP access list applied? (choose all that apply)

    A. sh ip port

    B. sh access-list

    C. sh ip interface

    D. sh access-list int

    E. sh running-config

188) Which of the following access lists will allow only FTP traffic into network 196.15.7.0?(1)

    A. access-list 100 permit tcp any 196.15.7.0 .0.0.0.255 eq ftp

    B. access-list 10 deny tcp any 196.15.7.0 eq ftp

    C. access-list 100 permit 196.15.7.0 .0.0.0.255 eq ftp

    D. access-list 10 permit tcp any 196.15.7.0 0.0.0.255

189) Which of the following are valid ways to refer only to host 172.16.30.55 in an IP access list? (choose all that apply)

    A. 172.16.30.55 0.0.0.255

    B. 172.16.30.55 0.0.0.0

    C. 172.16.30.55 255.255.255.255

    D. 0.0.0.0 172.16.30.55

    E. host 172.16.30.55

190) To specify all hosts in the Class B IP network 172.16.0.0, which wildcard mask would you use? (1)

    A. 255.255.0.0

    B. 255.255.255.255

    C. 0.0.0.0

    D. 0.0.255.255

191) IP extended access lists use which of the following as a basis for permitting or denying packets? (1)

    A. source address

    B. destination address

    C. port

    D. protocol

    E. all of the above

192) IP standard access lists use which of the following as a basis for permitting or denying packets? (1)

    A. source address

    B. destination address

    C. port

    D. protocol

193) Which of the following is the mask in an IP access list that will include the range of addresses between 172.30.16.0 through 172.30.31.0? (1)

    A. 0.0.255.255

    B. 0.0.15.255

    C. 255.255.0.0

    D. 255.255.192.0

194) Which of the following commands can be run from user level? (choose all that apply)

    A. Show aliases

    B. Show arp

    E. Show interface serial 0

    G. Show running-config

195) Identify the statement which would permit only smtp mail to access the host 209.76.25.1: (1)

    A. Access-list 101 deny ip any any

        Access-list 101 permit tcp any 209.76.25.1 eq smtp

    B. Access-list 101 permit tcp any 209.76.25.1 eq smtp

       Access-list 101 deny ip any 209.76.25.1

    C. Access-list 101 permit tcp 209.76.25.1 any eq smtp

    D. Access-list 101 permit ip 209.76.25.1 any eq 25

        Access-list 101 deny ip 209.76.25.1 any

196) Identify the true statements about the following access list: (2)

        Access-list Ip 101 deny tcp 192.10.172.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 23

    A. This access list is invalid

    B. The netmask on the this access list is reversed

    C. This access list filters telnet access

    D. This access list prevents the host 192.10.172.0 from telneting

    E. This access list denies any telnet traffic to 192.10.172.0

    F. This access list prevents any telnet traffic from 192.10.172.0

197) A ISDN BRI circuit can be described as a which of the following? (1)

    A. 3B channels

    B. 2-64Kbps B channels and 1-16Kbps C channel

    C. 2-64Kbps B channels and 1-16Kbps D channel

    D. none of the above

198) A ISDN PRI circuit can be described as which of the following? (1)

    A. 2-64Kbps B channels and 1-16Kbps D channel

    B. 23 B channels and 1-64Kbps D channel

    C. 24 B channels and 1-64Kbps D channel

    D. 2-D channels and 1-C channel

199) Which of the following statements are true? (2)

    A. Store and forward switching creates variable latency through the switch

    B. Cut through switching creates variables latency through the switch

    C. Store and forward switching works at wire speed

    D. Cut through switching works at wire speed

200) What ISDN protocol specifies concepts, terminology, and services?

    A. I

    B. S

    C. Q

    D. E

201) What information is provided by the local managment interface (LMI)? (choose all that apply)

    A. The status of virtual circuits

    D. LMI encapsulation type

202) What is true when using DDR? (1)

    A. You should use dynamic routing

    B. You must use static routing

    C. HDLC is the preferred encapsulation

    D. You should use ISDN

203) What are HDLC transfer modes used for?

    A. Data transfer

    B. Connection-oriented services

    C. Media Access

    D. Connectionless services

204) What is Cisco's default encapsulation method on serial interfaces? (1)

    A. ANSI

    B. Q933a

    C. Cisco

    D. HDLC

205) Which command will list all configured PVCs and DLCIs? (1)

    A. sh frame pvc

    B. sh pvc

    C. sh frame lmi

    D. sh frame

206) What is true about frame-relay DLCI?

    A. DLCI is used to tag the beginning of a frame when using frame-relay

    B. DLCI identifies a logical connection between DTE devices

    C. DLCI represents a single physical circuit

    D. DLCI is optional in a frame-relay network

207) Which of the following are valid WAN terms? (choose all that apply)

    A. CPE

208) If you wanted to view the DLCI and line speed for your frame-relay network, which command would use type? (1)

    A. sh frame-relay

    B. sh int

    C. sh frame-relay pvc

    D. sh frame-relay dlci

209) Which ISDN protocol prefix specifies switching? (1)

    A. I

    B. E

    C. S

    D. Q

210) Which of the following use PVC at layer 2?

    A. X.25

    B. ISDN

    C. Frame relay

    D. HDLC

211) What is the default LMI type? (1)

    A. Q933a

    B. ANSI

    C. IETF

    D. Cisco

212) Regarding frame relay, which of the following statements are true? (1)

    A. You must use Cisco encapsulation if connecting to non-Cisco equipment

    B. You must use ANSI encapsulation if connecting to non-Cisco equipment

    C. You must use IETF encapsulation if connecing to non-Cisco equipment

    D. You must use Q.933a encapsulation if connecing to non-Cisco equipment

213) How many LMI types are available on Cisco routers? (1)

    A. Two

    B. Three

    C. Four

    D. Five

214) How many Frame-relay encapsulation types are available with Cisco routers?

    A. Two

    B. Three

    C. Four

    D. Five

215) When would you use ISDN? (1)

    A. To connect to IBM mainframes

    B. To connect LANs using POTS

    C. To support applications requiring high speed voice, data, and video

    D. When you you need a consisten and very high rate of data speed

216) Choose the correct definitions matching the Transport Level: (Choose 3)

    A. IP - Route determination

    B. FTP - Transfers of Files

    D. SMTP - Provides Mail Exchange and

217) What three occurrences will reset the holddown timer after a triggered update?

    A. HD Timer expires

    B. Infinity is finally defined as some max number

    C. Another update is received indicating net status changed

    D. Another update is received indicating a better metric

    E. The router receives a processing task proportional to the number of links in the internetwork

    F. The router detects fault LSP's propagating through the internetwork

*Look this one up, I wasn't sure about this question

218) What command displays IPX routing update packets received or transmitted between a router? (choose all that apply)

    A. Sh rip

    B. Disp rip

    C. Sh ipx route

    D. Sh table ipx

    E. Disp ipx route

    F. Disp ipx routing activity

    G. Debug ipx routing activity

    H. Disp ipx interface activity

219) Which 3 statements describe default encapsulation and LMI type configuration?

    A. IETF encap must be configured unless the connecting routers are both cisco

    B. The LMI type config term options

    C. The default LMI is Cisco

    D. In release 11.3 the LMI type is autosensed

    E. There are only four encapsulations and 3 LMI type options

220) Describe End to End network services: (choose all that apply)

    A. Flow Control & Data Integrity

221) What command would you have entered to show the following:

        Router#<command>

        clear clock

    A. CL -?

    B. Help CL

    D. ? CL

    E. CL ?

Could be worded differently

222) What output would the following commands give the output:

        ROUTER#CL

        Ambiguous Command "CL"

    A. Router# CL -?

    B. Router# Help CL

    C. Router# CL?

    D. Router# ? CL

    E. Router# CL ? (There is a space between the CL and ?)

*This is why it is a good idea to have a router to try these commands to see the actually output

223) Which command would you use to find the parameters for the clock? (1)

    A. cl?

    B. cl ?

    C. show cl?

    D. show cl ?

224) What information can you get from CDP info: (choose all that apply)

    A. Hostname

    B. Software platform

    C. Hardware platform

    E. Two addresses per protocol

    F. Incoming/outgoing port

    G. As many addresses as are configured for each protocol

    H. The same info as show version

225) What 2 commands verify end to end communications?

    A. Telnet

    B. Ping

    D. Route

226) What is shown with the IP route command? (3)

        Ip route 154.4.55.0 255.255.255.0 195.23.55.1 85

    A. 154.4.55.0 is source address

    B. 154.4.55.0 is the source network

    C. 85 is administrative distance

    C. 154.4.55.0 is the destination network

    D. 195.23.55.0 is source network

    E. 85 is the autonomous system number

227) What 3 sources can you enter configuration commands?

    A. TFTP server

    C. Vterminal

    D. NVRAM

    E. HP Openview

228) Which of the follow do not belong to the customer (2 answers):

    A. CPE

    B. Demarc

    D. DTE

    E. DCE

    F. Router

229) What are the 2 functions of the data link Mac layer?

    A. Handles access to shared media

    B. Provides SAPs for higher level protocols

    C. Allows multiple devices to uniquely identify one another on the data link layer

230) What does the IPX maximum path command do? (1)

    A. Sets the maximum metric that can appear in the routing table

    C. Allows you to disable the TTL on an IPX packet

    D. This parameter is only used in NLSP routing.

231)What command sets up a secondary IP address of 192.15.1.7 with a class C netmask? (1)

    A. Ip address 192.15.1.7 255.255.255.0

    B. Ip address 192.15.1.7 255.0.0.0 secondary

    C. Ip secondary address 192.15.1.7 0.255.255.255

    D. Ip address 192.15.1.7 255.255.255.0 secondary

    E. Secondary ip address 192.15.1.7 255.255.255.0

232) What command Displays RIP routing updates send and received at router

    A. Sh ip rip 10

    B. Debug rip updates

    C. Debug ip rip

    D. Debug ip routing

233) Deny telnet inbound with access list: (1)

    A. Access-list 101 deny ip any eq 23

    B. Access-list 101 deny tcp 192.15.72.5 255.255.255.0 eq 23

    C. Access-list 101 permit ip any except telnet

    D. Distribute-list 101 deny any eq telnet

234) What are 3 ways to provide login access to a router?

    A. TFTP

    D. Rlogin

    F. RADIUS

235) Which of the following commands would set the bandwidth to 56K on serial 0 interface?

    A. Router# conf t

        Router(conf-if)# band width 56000

    B. Router# conf t

        Router(conf)# int ser 0

    C. Router# conf t

        Router(conf)# int ser0

        Router(confi-if)# bandwidth 56000

    D. Router# conf t

236) How would you set the encapsulation type to PPP on a serial interface? (1)

    A. Router(config)# encap ppp

    B. Router(config-if)# encap ppp

    C. Router(config-if)# ppp encapsulation

    D. Router(config-if)# ppp